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Certified Professional Midwife exam Dumps

CPM exam Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | exam Syllabus | exam Objectives

Exam Details:
- Number of Questions: The number of questions in the CPM (Certified Professional Midwife) exam may vary depending on the certifying organization. Typically, the exam consists of multiple-choice questions, and the exact number can range from 150 to 250 questions.

- Time: The duration of the exam can also vary depending on the organization. Generally, candidates are given a set time limit to complete the exam, which can range from 3 to 5 hours. It is advisable to refer to the specific guidelines provided by the certifying organization for accurate information regarding the exam duration.

Course Outline:
The CPM certification program is designed to assess the knowledge and skills required to practice as a professional midwife. While the specific course outline may vary depending on the certifying organization, the following courses are typically covered:

1. Midwifery Philosophy and Principles:
- History and philosophy of midwifery
- The role and responsibilities of a certified professional midwife
- Legal and ethical considerations in midwifery practice

2. Pregnancy and Prenatal Care:
- Anatomy and physiology of pregnancy
- Prenatal assessments and screenings
- Antenatal care and education for expectant parents

3. Intrapartum Care and Delivery:
- Stages of labor and childbirth
- Monitoring maternal and fetal well-being during labor
- Techniques for supporting natural childbirth and managing complications

4. Postpartum Care:
- Postpartum physiological changes and recovery
- Breastfeeding support and education
- Newborn care and assessments

5. Newborn Care and Neonatal Resuscitation:
- Neonatal assessment and resuscitation techniques
- Newborn screening and immunizations
- Common newborn conditions and interventions

6. Complications and Emergency Situations:
- Recognition and management of obstetric emergencies
- Complications during labor and birth
- Communication and collaboration with healthcare professionals in emergency situations

7. Professional Practice and Ethics:
- Professional standards and guidelines for midwifery practice
- Business and legal aspects of a midwifery practice
- Cultural competency and sensitivity in providing care

Exam Objectives:
The objectives of the CPM exam typically include:

1. Assessing Knowledge: Evaluate the candidate's understanding of midwifery principles, practices, and essential knowledge areas.

2. Testing Clinical Skills: Assess the candidate's ability to apply theoretical knowledge to clinical scenarios and make appropriate decisions in various aspects of midwifery care.

3. Evaluating Critical Thinking: Assess the candidate's critical thinking skills in evaluating evidence, problem-solving, and making sound clinical judgments in midwifery practice.

4. Certifying Midwifery Competencies: Provide a recognized certification for individuals who demonstrate the knowledge, skills, and competencies required to practice as a certified professional midwife.

Exam Syllabus:
The specific exam syllabus for the CPM may vary depending on the certifying organization. However, the following courses are typically included:

1. Midwifery Philosophy and Principles:
- History and philosophy of midwifery
- Midwifery models of care
- Legal and ethical considerations in midwifery practice

2. Anatomy and Physiology:
- Female reproductive system
- Fetal development and physiology
- Physiological changes during pregnancy, labor, and postpartum

3. Prenatal Care:
- Prenatal assessments and screenings
- Nutrition and exercise during pregnancy
- Education and counseling for expectant parents

4. Intrapartum Care:
- Stages of labor and childbirth
- Comfort measures and pain management techniques
- Monitoring maternal

and fetal well-being during labor

5. Postpartum Care:
- Postpartum physiological changes and recovery
- Breastfeeding support and education
- Newborn care and assessments

6. Newborn Care:
- Newborn assessment and examinations
- Common newborn conditions and interventions
- Neonatal resuscitation techniques

7. Complications and Emergency Situations:
- Obstetric emergencies and management
- Complications during labor and birth
- Communication and collaboration with healthcare professionals in emergency situations

8. Professional Practice:
- Professional standards and guidelines for midwifery practice
- Business aspects of a midwifery practice
- Cultural competency and sensitivity in providing care

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Certified Professional Midwife
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Question: 36
A client in labor is administered with an anesthetic through the spinal
subarachnoid space. Which of the following actions by the nurse is the least
appropriate when managing the client?
A. The midwife maintains the client flat on bed for 8 to 12 hours.
B. Inform the client that headaches may occur.
C. Monitor the client for hypertension.
D. Administer IV fluids.
Answer: C
The midwife should monitor the client for hypotension, not hypertension
Subarachnoid or spinal block relieves uterine and perineal pain and numbs the
lower extremities, vagina and perineum. The anesthetic may cause headaches.
The client should be flat on the bed for 8 to 12 hours. Administration of IV fluids
is also appropriate.
Question: 37
A midwife is teaching a 14-year-old girl about contraceptives. The client gave
birth to a healthy baby girl three days ago. The midwife is correct when she says
that the most effective way to protect against conception is through:
A. Natural family planning.
B. Abstinence.
C. Oral contraception.
D. Surgical methods.
Answer: B
Abstinence is the most effective way to protect against conception. Natural family
planning has a failure rate of about 20%. Oral contraception has a failure rate of
about 3%. If used correctly, oral contraceptives are 99.5% effective. Surgical
methods have a failure rate between 0.1 and 0.4%.
Question: 38
A midwife is assessing four female clients with signs and symptoms involving the
reproductive system. All clients are engaging in heterosexual sexual relationships.
The midwife requires identification and treatment of sexual partners of all of the
following clients except:
A. A client diagnosed with genital herpes.
B. A client diagnosed with chlamydia.
C. A client diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis.
D. A client with hepatitis B.
Answer: C
A client diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis is not required to identify her sexual
partners for treatment. Engaging in unprotected sex increases the risk for bacterial
vaginosis for women only, and it is believed that bacterial vaginosis can be
transmitted between women. Therefore, only women who engage in sexual
relationships with other women need to identify their sexual partners for treatment
of bacterial vaginosis.
Question: 39
A midwife is assessing the fertility of couples who have been trying to conceive
for a period of time without success. Which of the following couples has primary
infertility?
A. A couple engaging in unprotected sex for half a year. No previous conceptions
are reported.
B. A couple engaging in unprotected sex for one year. A previous conception is
reported.
C. A couple engaging in unprotected sex for one year. No previous conceptions
are reported.
D. A couple engaging in unprotected sex for half a year. A previous conception is
reported.
Answer: C
Infertility is engaging in unprotected sex for one year without an occurring
pregnancy. If the couple has no previous conceptions, it is called primary
infertility. If the couple reported a previous conception, it is called secondary
infertility.
Question: 40
A couple is considering artificial insemination after the man fails to respond to
medications that intend to increase his sperm count. Which of the following
statements about artificial insemination is false?
A. A donor�s sperm can be used.
B. The sperm is instilled into the female reproductive tract one day after
ovulation.
C. It involves selective termination of gestational sacs.
D. The sperm is instilled into the cervix or uterus.
Answer: C
Artificial insemination does not involve selective termination of gestational sacs.
Selective termination is performed in in vitro fertilization. Artificial insemination
may be considered if the man has inadequate sperm count or if the woman has a
condition that interferes with sperm motility.
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