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CBUNA Certified Urologic Nurse Practitioner test Dumps

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Question: 1
Which of the following body systems is primarily involved in allergy and immunology disorders?
A. Integumentary system
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Gastrointestinal system
D. Respiratory system
Answer: D
Explanation: Allergy and immunology disorders primarily involve the respiratory system. Conditions such as allergic rhinitis, asthma, and allergic bronchitis affect the airways and lungs, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and difficulty breathing.
Question: 2
Which of the following conditions is characterized by excessive accumulation of iron in the body, leading to organ damage and dysfunction?
A. Thalassemia
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Iron-deficiency anemia
Answer: B
Explanation: Hemochromatosis is a condition characterized by excessive accumulation of iron in the body, leading to organ damage and dysfunction. It is usually caused by a genetic mutation that affects iron metabolism and
absorption.
Question: 3
Which of the following activities is within the scope of practice of a certified urologic nurse practitioner?
A. Prescribing chemotherapy for genitourinary cancers
B. Conducting physical examinations and taking medical histories
C. Performing open surgical procedures for renal stones
D. Administering general anesthesia for urologic surgeries
Answer: B
Explanation: Conducting physical examinations and taking medical histories is within the scope of practice of a certified urologic nurse practitioner. They play a crucial role in the assessment and diagnosis of urologic conditions but do not perform surgical procedures or prescribe chemotherapy. Anesthesia administration is typically the responsibility of an anesthesiologist.
Question: 4
A 55-year-old male presents with painless hematuria. On further evaluation, a solid renal mass is identified. The nurse practitioner suspects renal cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the most common histologic subtype of renal cell carcinoma?
A. Papillary carcinoma
B. Clear cell carcinoma
C. Chromophobe carcinoma
D. Collecting duct carcinoma Answer: B
Explanation: Clear cell carcinoma is the most common histologic subtype of renal cell carcinoma, accounting for approximately 75% of cases. It is characterized by clear cytoplasm and nests or sheets of polygonal cells.
Question: 5
A 40-year-old male presents with persistent low back pain and numbness in his right leg. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals a herniated disc at the L5S1 level. The nurse practitioner suspects compression of the right L5 nerve root. Which of the following physical examination findings would be consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Decreased sensation over the medial leg and foot
B. Loss of anal sphincter tone
C. Diminished patellar reflex
D. Weakness of ankle dorsiflexion
Answer: D
Explanation: Weakness of ankle dorsiflexion would be consistent with compression of the right L5 nerve root. The L5 nerve innervates the muscles responsible for ankle dorsiflexion, and compression of the nerve can result in weakness in this movement.
Question: 6
Which of the following structures is responsible for detecting sound vibrations and transmitting them to the brain for interpretation?
A. Auditory ossicles
B. Eustachian tube
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Cochlea
Answer: D
Explanation: The cochlea, located in the inner ear, is responsible for detecting sound vibrations and transmitting them to the brain forinterpretation. It contains sensory cells called hair cells that convert mechanical vibrations into electrical signals, which are then transmitted to the brain via the auditory nerve.
Question: 7
Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for regulating blood pressure and fluid balance?
A. Aldosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Insulin
Answer: A
Explanation: Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, is primarily responsible for regulating blood pressure and fluid balance. It acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water while promoting the excretion of potassium.
Question: 8
A 32-year-old female presents with pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and infertility. On pelvic examination, the nurse practitioner notes tender nodules and adhesions on the posterior vaginal wall. The patient's symptoms are most consistent with
which of the following conditions?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C. Endometriosis
D. Ovarian cyst
Answer: C
Explanation: The patient's symptoms of pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and infertility, along with the presence of tender nodules and adhesions on the posterior vaginal wall, are consistent with endometriosis. Endometriosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, leading to inflammation, scarring, and adhesions.
Question: 9
A 65-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain radiating to the back. On examination, blood pressure in the right arm is significantly higher than in the left arm, and a widened pulse pressure is noted. The nurse practitioner suspects an aortic dissection. Which of the following imaging studies is the most appropriate initial test to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Computed tomography angiography (CTA)
B. Echocardiography
C. Chest x-ray
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Answer: A
Explanation: Computed tomography angiography (CTA) is the most
appropriate initial test to confirm the diagnosis of aortic dissection. It provides detailed imaging of the aorta and can identify the location, extent, and complications associated with the dissection.
Question: 10
Which of the following infectious diseases is caused by a spirochete bacterium and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks?
A. Malaria
B. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
D. Lyme disease
Answer: D
Explanation: Lyme disease is caused by a spirochete bacterium called Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks, primarily the deer tick (Ixodes scapularis). It is characterized by symptoms such as rash, fever, fatigue, and joint pain.
Question: 11
A patient presents with a red, raised, and itchy rash on the skin after using a new skincare product. The nurse practitioner suspects an allergic contact dermatitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
A. Prescribe a topical corticosteroid cream
B. Recommend oral antihistamines for symptom relief
C. Perform patch testing to identify the specificallergen
D. Advise the patient to discontinue using the skincare product Answer: D
Explanation: The most appropriate initial management for a patient with suspected allergic contact dermatitis is to advise the patient to discontinue using the skincare product that is causing the reaction. This helps remove the source of the allergen and prevent further exposure. Additional interventions, such as topical corticosteroids or patch testing, may be considered depending on the severity and persistence of symptoms.
Question: 12
Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by an abnormality in the number of sex chromosomes, resulting in a male individual having an extra X chromosome (XXY)?
A. Down syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
Answer: C
Explanation: Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an abnormality in the number of sex chromosomes, resulting in a male individual having an extra X chromosome (XXY). It is characterized by features such as tall stature, gynecomastia (enlarged breasts), small testes, and infertility.
Question: 13
A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of fever, abdominal pain, and joint swelling. On laboratory testing, the child is found to have an elevated white blood cell count and elevated serum uric acid levels.
Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Familial Mediterranean fever
B. Henoch-SchÃ¶nlein purpura
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Familial Mediterranean fever is a genetic disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of fever, abdominal pain, and joint swelling. It is more common in individuals of Mediterranean descent. Elevated white blood cell count and elevated serum uric acid levels are commonly seen during episodes of the disease.
Question: 14
Which of the following gastrointestinal disorders is characterized by chronic inflammation and ulceration of the inner lining of the colon and rectum?
A. Crohn's disease
B. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
C. Diverticulitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
Answer: D
Explanation: Ulcerative colitis is characterized by chronic inflammation and ulceration of the inner lining of the colon and rectum. It typically involves continuous areas of the colon and presents with symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency to have a bowel movement. Crohn's disease, on the other hand, can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and is characterized by patchy inflammation and the formation of strictures or fistulas.
Question: 15
A 7-year-old child presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). The nurse practitioner suspects vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) as the underlying cause. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Renal ultrasonography
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the kidneys
C. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
D. Urine culture and sensitivity
Answer: C
Explanation: VCUG is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis of vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) in children with recurrent UTIs. It allows visualization of the urinary tract and the detection of reflux of urine from the bladder into the ureters and kidneys.
Question: 16
Which of the following nutrients is essential for the synthesis of collagen, a structural protein found in connective tissues?
A. Calcium
B. Vitamin D
C. Iron
D. Vitamin C
Answer: D Explanation: Vitamin C is essential for the synthesis of collagen, a structural protein found in connective tissues. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and strength of connective tissues, including skin, tendons, ligaments, and blood vessels.
Question: 17
A 45-year-old male presents with urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia. He reports a weak urinary stream and difficulty initiating urination. On physical examination, the prostate is enlarged and smooth. The nurse practitioner suspects benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which of the following medications is the most appropriate initial treatment option for this patient?
A. Finasteride
B. Doxazosin
C. Tamsulosin
D. Terazosin
Answer: C
Explanation: Tamsulosin, an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist, is the most appropriate initial treatment option for a patient with BPH. It helps relax the smooth muscles of the prostate and bladder neck, improving urinary flow and reducing symptoms.
Question: 18
A 25-year-old female presents to the clinic with symptoms of burning and itching in the vaginal area. On examination, the nurse practitioner notes a thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge. The patient's symptoms are most consistent with which of the following infections?
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Candidiasis (yeast infection)
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Chlamydia
Answer: B
Explanation: The patient's symptoms of burning, itching, and a thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge are consistent with candidiasis, also known as a yeast infection. It is caused by an overgrowth of Candida, a type of fungus, in the vaginal area.

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CBUNA Certified Urologic Nurse Practitioner test Dumps

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